Skip to main content

[Community Question] Geometry: Factoring singular conics into linear forms

One of our user asked:

I'm looking for an easy way to factor singular conics into linear forms in order the following exercise.

Which of the following quadratic forms define a singular > conic? Write those as a product of two linear forms.

(a) $x_0^2-2x_0x_1+4x_0x_2-8x_1^2+2x_1x_2+3x_2^2$

(b) $x_0^2-2x_0x_1+x_1^2-2x_0x_2$

(c) $3x_0^2-2x_0x_1$

The matrices of (b) and (c) have full rank and so the quadratic forms are non-degenerate. For (a), we have the matrix

$$ M= \begin{bmatrix} 1 & -1 & 2 \\ -1 & -8 & 1 \\ 2 & 1 & 3 \end{bmatrix} $$

where $det(M)=0$. One way to solve the exercise would be to orthogonally diagonalize M to get rid of the mixed terms. However this involves computing the eigenvalues of M and finding the corresponding eigenvectors. So my question is: Is there a quicker way to do this or do I have to go through the calculations?


Comments

Popular posts from this blog

[Community Question] Calculus: Manifold with boundary - finding the boundary

One of our user asked: I have the manifold with boundary $M:= \lbrace (x_1,x_2,x_3) \in \mathbb R^3 : x_1\geq 0, x_1^2+x_2^2+x_3^2=1\rbrace \cup\lbrace (x_1,x_2,x_3) \in \mathbb R^3 : x_1= 0, x_1^2+x_2^2+x_3^2\leq1\rbrace$ and I need to find the boundary of this manifold. I think it is $\lbrace (x_1,x_2,x_3) \in \mathbb R^n : x_1= 0, x_2^2+x_3^2=1\rbrace$ , the other option is that the boundary is the empty set? I think the first is right? Am I wrong?

[Community Question] Linear-algebra: Are linear transformations between infinite dimensional vector spaces always differentiable?

One of our user asked: In class we saw that every linear transformation is differentiable (since there's always a linear approximation for them) and we also saw that a differentiable function must be continuous, so it must be true that all linear operators are continuous, however, I just read that between infinite dimensional vector spaces this is not necessarily true. I would like to know where's the flaw in my reasoning (I suspect that linear transformations between infinite dimensional vector spaces are not always differentiable).

Order of elements of the Prüfer groups $\mathbb{Z}(p^{\infty})$

Let $\mathbb{Z}(p^{\infty})$ be defined by $\mathbb{Z}(p^{\infty}) = \{ \overline{a/b} \in \mathbb{Q}/ \mathbb{Z} / a,b \in \mathbb{Z}, b=p^i$ $ with$ $ i \in \mathbb{N} \}$ , I wish show that any element in $\mathbb{Z}(p^{\infty})$ has order $p^n$ with $n \in \mathbb{N}$ . i try several ways but I have not been successful, some help ?? thank you